Question 1
A 54-year-old male presents to a rural district hospital in the Eastern Cape 90 minutes after the onset of severe substernal chest pain. His ECG shows 4 mm ST-segment elevation in leads V1-V4 with reciprocal ST depression in II, III, and aVF. Transfer time to the nearest PCI-capable hospital is estimated at 3.5 hours. He has no contraindications to fibrinolysis. According to ESC and SA Heart guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial reperfusion strategy?
Correct Answer:
Immediate administration of a weight-adjusted bolus of tenecteplase (fibrinolysis) followed by urgent transfer for pharmacoinvasive PCI
Question 2
A 68-year-old female presents with acute NSTEMI. Her GRACE risk score is calculated at 152 (high risk). She is hemodynamically stable without recurrent pain, heart failure, or ventricular arrhythmias. According to current NSTEMI guidelines, what is the recommended timeframe for invasive coronary angiography?
Correct Answer:
Invasive angiography within 24 hours of presentation (early invasive strategy)
Question 3
A 60-year-old male undergoes successful primary PCI with a drug-eluting stent (DES) for an acute anterior STEMI. He has no history of stroke, transient ischemic attack (TIA), bleeding diathesis, or oral anticoagulation requirement. Which P2Y12 inhibitor is preferred over clopidogrel as part of dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT)?
Correct Answer:
Ticagrelor 90 mg twice daily (or Prasugrel 10 mg daily)
Question 4
On day 4 post-inferior STEMI, a 62-year-old male suddenly develops severe dyspnea, hypotension (BP 82/50 mmHg), and pulmonary edema. Physical exam reveals a new pan-systolic murmur at the apex radiating to the axilla. Echocardiogram demonstrates hyperdynamic left ventricle with severe acute mitral regurgitation and a flail posteromedial mitral leaflet. What is the definitive management?
Correct Answer:
Emergency cardiac surgery for mitral valve repair or replacement with intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) stabilization
Question 5
A 58-year-old male presents with acute inferior STEMI and marked hypotension (BP 78/45 mmHg), clear lungs, and elevated jugular venous pressure (Kussmaul sign positive). Right-sided ECG (V4R) shows 2 mm ST elevation. What is the most appropriate immediate medical intervention?
Correct Answer:
Intravenous isotonic saline fluid boluses (0.9% NaCl)
Question 1
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Prepare with the Cert Cardiology(SA) Phys Practice Questions - Sub-specialty Certificate in Cardiology of the College of Physicians of South Africa Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, male, presents, heart, and coronary. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Cert Cardiology(SA) Phys Practice Questions - Sub-specialty Certificate in Cardiology of the College of Physicians of South Africa Exam

This practice set contains 100 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, male, presents, heart, and coronary. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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