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Question 1
A 52-year-old man presents to the primary care clinic for a health checkup. His blood pressure on two separate clinic visits averages 164/102 mmHg. He has no past medical history, and baseline laboratory investigations including serum creatinine, electrolytes, and urinalysis are normal. According to current hypertension guidelines, what is the most appropriate initial pharmacological management?
Correct Answer:
Dual therapy with an ACE inhibitor and a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
Question 2
A 58-year-old woman with a 7-year history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents for routine follow-up. Her current HbA1c is 8.2% despite metformin 1000 mg twice daily. She has a history of non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction 2 years ago. Her eGFR is 48 mL/min/1.73 m² and urine albumin-to-creatinine ratio is 180 mg/g. Which of the following is the most appropriate medication to add to her regimen?
Correct Answer:
Empagliflozin
Question 3
A 62-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus (HbA1c 8.8%) and a BMI of 34 kg/m² has a history of stable angina. He is already taking metformin 1000 mg twice daily and rosuvastatin 20 mg daily. He is eager to lose weight and reduce his long-term risk of stroke and myocardial infarction. Which antidiabetic class has proven superiority for both substantial weight reduction and major adverse cardiovascular event (MACE) reduction?
Correct Answer:
GLP-1 receptor agonists
Question 4
A 66-year-old man is diagnosed with heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF; LVEF 32%). He is currently asymptomatic at rest but experiences dyspnea when climbing one flight of stairs (NYHA Class II). His blood pressure is 128/78 mmHg, heart rate is 72 bpm, serum creatinine is 1.1 mg/dL, and potassium is 4.4 mEq/L. Which combination constitutes the four foundational pillar drug classes of guideline-directed medical therapy (GDMT) for HFrEF?
Correct Answer:
ARNI (or ACEi/ARB), Evidence-based Beta-Blocker, MRA, and SGLT2 inhibitor
Question 5
A 71-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes is found to have non-valvular atrial fibrillation on a routine ECG. She is asymptomatic and has no history of stroke, transient ischemic attack, or heart failure. Her calculated CHA2DS2-VASc score is 4 (Age 65-74 = 1, Female = 1, Hypertension = 1, Diabetes = 1). What is the recommended long-term stroke prevention strategy?
Correct Answer:
Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as apixaban or rivaroxaban
Question 1
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Prepare with the Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Practice Questions - Arab Board of Health Specializations (ABHS) Family Medicine Final Written Examination Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, presents, history, woman, and normal. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Arab Board Family Medicine Final Written Practice Questions - Arab Board of Health Specializations (ABHS) Family Medicine Final Written Examination Exam

This practice set contains 100 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, presents, history, woman, and normal. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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