Question 1
Which finding is most consistent with the need to discontinue labor augmentation with oxytocin?
Correct Answer:
Nonreassuring fetal heart tracing with tachysystole
Explanation:
When labor is being augmented with oxytocin, the danger signal is uterine tachysystole—too-frequent contractions that can cut off placental blood flow during each contraction. If this occurs together with a nonreassuring fetal heart tracing, the best move is to discontinue the oxytocin. Stopping the augmentation reduces contraction frequency and allows the fetus to recover from any contraction-induced hypoxia, improving uteroplacental perfusion. This step often precedes further measures like repositioning, IV fluids, and supplemental oxygen, and if contractions remain excessive, tocolysis may be considered to calm the uterus. Normal fetal tracing with adequate contractions does not indicate a problem and does not require stopping the augmentation. Light vaginal bleeding without fetal distress can occur for various reasons and isn’t by itself a reason to halt oxytocin unless fetal status becomes compromised. Maternal resting heart rate above 100 bpm signals maternal tachycardia which, by itself, does not mandate stopping augmentation unless it’s part of a larger clinical picture with fetal distress or uterine overactivity.
Question 2
After expelling a hydatidiform mole, which response best addresses the patient’s question about when to try to become pregnant again?
Correct Answer:
Wait at least 1 year.
Explanation:
After a molar pregnancy is evacuated, the priority is to prove that there is no persistent trophoblastic disease. That means carefully tracking the pregnancy hormone (hCG) levels until they fall to and stay at undetectable levels for a sustained period. Only after you’ve confirmed this stability should we consider trying to conceive again. Waiting at least a year gives time for complete resolution to be verified and reduces the chance that a hidden persistent mole or rising hCG could be mistaken for a new pregnancy. It also allows the uterus to recover after the evacuation so a future pregnancy can be monitored safely from the start. Shorter intervals, like six months, may not provide enough time to detect late persistence; longer intervals, such as two years, aren’t usually necessary unless there are specific concerns. There is a definite waiting period recommended to balance safety and future fertility.
Question 3
Initial client assessment shows BP 160/110 mm Hg, pulse 88, respirations 22, reflexes +3/+4 with 2 beat clonus, +3 protein in urine. Based on these findings, which complaints are most likely?
Correct Answer:
Headache, blurred vision, and facial and extremity swelling
Explanation:
High blood pressure in pregnancy with significant proteinuria and signs of CNS irritability points to severe preeclampsia. The headaches and visual disturbances arise from cerebral vasospasm and cerebral edema, while facial and extremity swelling reflect generalized edema from endothelial dysfunction. Together, these findings explain why headaches, blurred vision, and swelling are the most likely complaints. Numbness and tingling are not as characteristic of preeclampsia, though peripheral symptoms can occur in other conditions. Severe abdominal or chest pain can occur in pregnancy-related emergencies but do not fit the most immediate CNS and edema-clinical picture here.
Question 4
A client at 34 weeks with placenta previa is bleeding. The fetal heart sounds are normal and the client is not in labor. Which nursing intervention should the nurse perform?
Correct Answer:
Prepare the client for immediate cesarean delivery.
Explanation:
Placenta previa means the placenta is implanted over or near the cervical os, which makes vaginal delivery dangerous because bleeding can worsen if labor begins or the cervix dilates. Even with reassuring fetal heart tones, active bleeding from placenta previa at 34 weeks requires delivering the fetus via cesarean to control maternal hemorrhage and prevent placental separation during labor. Therefore preparing for immediate cesarean delivery is the most appropriate nursing action. In practice, the nurse should support this plan by coordinating with the obstetric team and ensuring readiness for surgery: establish two large-bore IV lines with fluids available, arrange for type and crossmatch and potential blood products, keep the patient NPO, continuously monitor maternal vital signs and bleeding, monitor the fetal status, and ensure rapid transfer to the operating room with appropriate consent and documentation.
Question 5
A 26-year-old primigravida at 34 weeks uses mineral oil for constipation. Which instruction is correct?
Correct Answer:
Avoid mineral oil because it interferes with absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
Explanation:
Interfering with absorption of fat-soluble vitamins is the key issue here. Mineral oil acts as a laxative by coating the intestinal contents, which can hinder the absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K. In pregnancy, maintaining adequate levels of these vitamins is important for both maternal health and fetal development, so using mineral oil can increase the risk of deficiencies. That’s why the instruction is to avoid mineral oil during pregnancy. Continuing to use mineral oil isn’t ideal because it doesn’t resolve the absorption issue. Using it after meals or switching to a version with vitamin supplements wouldn’t eliminate the problem, since the oil itself still binds fats and reduces vitamin uptake. Instead, opt for safer constipation management during pregnancy, such as increasing dietary fiber and fluids, staying active as tolerated, and using safer laxatives or stool softeners (for example, docusate or certain osmotic laxatives) under prenatal care guidance if needed.
Question 1
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Prepare with the Antepartum and Intrapartum Period Obstetrics (OB) SCC 4th Quarter Practice Test practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering client, weeks, pregnant, nurse, and amniocentesis. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Antepartum and Intrapartum Period Obstetrics (OB) SCC 4th Quarter Practice Test

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on client, weeks, pregnant, nurse, and amniocentesis. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

This is an independent study resource intended for practice and review; it is not an official examination or an endorsement by any organization named in the title.

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