Question 1
A 64-year-old postmenopausal female presents to the emergency department 2 hours after experiencing severe emotional shock following the sudden death of her spouse. She complains of acute substernal crushing chest pain and shortness of breath. ECG shows 2 mm ST-segment elevations across leads V2–V6 without reciprocal changes. Emergent coronary angiography reveals angiographically normal coronary arteries without plaque rupture, thrombosis, or focal spasm. Left ventriculography demonstrates marked apical and mid-ventricular akinesis with basal hyperkinesis ('apical ballooning') and an estimated left ventricular ejection fraction of 30%. Cardiac magnetic resonance (CMR) imaging is scheduled. What is the characteristic CMR finding that differentiates this condition from acute myocardial infarction and acute myocarditis?
Correct Answer:
Absence of significant late gadolinium enhancement (LGE) despite extensive myocardial edema on T2-weighted imaging
Question 2
A 28-year-old previously healthy woman presents with refractory hypertension (blood pressure 178/104 mmHg despite dual-agent antihypertensive therapy) and an unprovoked sudden right-sided pulsatile tinnitus. Physical examination reveals an epigastric systolic-diastolic vascular bruit and a right carotid bruit. Serum creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL and serum potassium is 3.4 mEq/L. Computed tomography angiography (CTA) of the renal and carotid arteries reveals bilateral alternating areas of arterial stenosis and aneurysmal dilation described as a 'string of beads' primarily involving the middle and distal segments of the renal arteries. What is the most definitive primary interventional therapy of choice for her renal vascular pathology?
Correct Answer:
Percutaneous balloon angioplasty (PTRA) without routine primary stent placement
Question 3
A 52-year-old male with a history of bicuspid aortic valve presents to the resuscitation bay with sudden-onset excruciating 'tearing' chest pain radiating directly into the interscapular region. His blood pressure is 88/54 mmHg in the right arm and 84/50 mmHg in the left arm, with a heart rate of 118 bpm. Cardiac examination reveals distant heart sounds, jugular venous distention, and a new high-pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur at the right sternal border. Point-of-care transthoracic echocardiography demonstrates an intimal flap in the ascending aorta, severe aortic regurgitation, and a 1.2 cm pericardial effusion without frank diastolic right ventricular collapse. What is the immediate, most appropriate definitive management step?
Correct Answer:
Immediate emergent cardiothoracic surgical consultation for ascending aortic repair and valve replacement/resuspension
Question 4
A 74-year-old male with a history of bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome and lumbar spinal stenosis presents with progressive exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and lower extremity edema over the past 8 months. 12-lead ECG demonstrates normal sinus rhythm with low QRS voltage in limb leads and pseudo-infarction QS waves in leads V1–V3. Echocardiography reveals marked symmetric concentric left ventricular wall thickening (septum 18 mm), biatrial enlargement, mildly reduced LVEF (42%), and speckle-tracking global longitudinal strain showing preserved apical strain with severe basal and mid-ventricular impairment ('apical sparing' pattern). Serum and urine protein electrophoresis with immunofixation and serum free light chain (sFLC) ratio are completely normal. What is the next most definitive non-invasive diagnostic investigation to confirm the underlying etiology?
Correct Answer:
Technetium-99m pyrophosphate (99mTc-PYP) or DPD bone scintigraphy
Question 5
A 23-year-old woman is brought to the hospital by her family due to dramatic behavioral changes, visual hallucinations, and acute persecutory delusions that developed over two weeks. Over the subsequent 5 days in the inpatient psychiatric unit, she developed refractory generalized tonic-clonic seizures, progressive mutism, prominent orofacial and lingual dyskinesias (lip-smacking and tongue protrusion), fluctuating hyperpyrexia, blood pressure instability, and sinus tachycardia. Brain MRI with gadolinium is normal. Routine CSF analysis reveals mild lymphocytic pleocytosis (22 WBCs/uL) with normal protein and glucose. Serum and CSF testing confirm high-titer antibodies against the GluN1 subunit of the NMDA receptor. Pelvic MRI reveals a 4.5 cm cystic and solid right adnexal mass. What is the fundamental two-pronged therapeutic strategy required for optimal long-term neurological recovery?
Correct Answer:
Prompt surgical tumor resection (oophorectomy/cystectomy) combined with first-line immunotherapy (corticosteroids and IVIG or plasmapheresis)
Question 1
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Prepare with the Afghanistan Comprehensive Specialization Exam Practice Questions - Afghanistan Comprehensive Specialization Completion Exam (Takhasus) Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 100 questions covering year-old, male, reveals, serum, and severe. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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Afghanistan Comprehensive Specialization Exam Practice Questions - Afghanistan Comprehensive Specialization Completion Exam (Takhasus) Exam

This practice set contains 100 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on year-old, male, reveals, serum, and severe. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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