Question 1
What is the definitive test for confirming brain death?
Correct Answer:
Cerebral Perfusion Scan
Explanation:
Determining brain death hinges on proving there is no cerebral blood flow. The most definitive way to demonstrate this is with cerebral perfusion imaging, which uses radioactive tracers to show whether the brain is receiving blood. If the scan shows no uptake in the brain tissue, it confirms that cerebral perfusion is absent, aligning with the defining criterion of brain death. Electrical activity tests like EEG can be suppressed by sedation, metabolic disturbances, or other factors, so they aren’t reliably definitive on their own. CT head reveals anatomy and possible causes but does not prove whether brain tissue is being perfused. Transcranial Doppler looks at blood flow in large vessels but can be inconclusive or affected by technical factors. Therefore, cerebral perfusion imaging provides the most direct confirmation of the absence of brain perfusion and is considered the definitive ancillary test in many protocols.
Question 2
Which class of medication is considered first-line therapy for gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)?
Correct Answer:
Proton pump inhibitors
Explanation:
Proton pump inhibitors are the go-to initial therapy because they provide strong, sustained suppression of gastric acid by blocking the final step of acid production in the stomach. This level of acid control leads to higher rates of symptom relief and healing of esophageal irritation, which is why they are preferred as first-line treatment for GERD. Antacids offer quick, short-lived relief but don’t promote healing. H2 receptor antagonists reduce acid but are less potent and can lose effectiveness over time. Prokinetic agents can help with motility and some symptoms, but they don’t match the efficacy and tolerability of PPIs for most GERD patients, making them a less favored first option.
Question 3
Which of the following is a common disadvantage of noninvasive ventilation?
Correct Answer:
Mask leak is the most common problem
Explanation:
Mask leaks are the most common drawback of noninvasive ventilation. The seal between the mask and the facial contours is hard to maintain in everyone, so air escapes during both inhalation and exhalation. This leakage means the ventilator may deliver less than the intended pressure or tidal volume, reducing the effectiveness of ventilation. It can cause patient-ventilator asynchrony, where the patient’s own breathing pattern doesn’t match the machine’s support, leading to discomfort and the need for frequent mask readjustments. Leaks also irritate the skin, eyes, or mucosa, and can set off alarms or require more clinician attention, which can hinder tolerance and continuation of therapy. Proper mask fitting, skin protection, and humidification help mitigate leaks, but they remain the most frequent disadvantage of this therapy. By contrast, preserving speech, shortening ICU stays, and reducing pharmacologic needs are generally considered benefits of SAMPLEnoninvasive ventilation rather than disadvantages.
Question 4
Which of the following is NOT an absolute contraindication to noninvasive ventilation?
Correct Answer:
Nasal/pharyngeal abnormalities
Explanation:
Noninvasive ventilation works best when the patient can breathe spontaneously, protect their airway, and a good seal can be achieved with a mask. When any factor makes these conditions unsafe or impossible, NIV is not appropriate. Cardiac or respiratory arrest means there’s no effective spontaneous breathing to support gas exchange, so NIV won’t meet the patient’s needs and invasive ventilation is required. An upper airway obstruction prevents airflow despite the applied pressures, so NIV cannot relieve the obstruction. Facial or head trauma often prevents a reliable mask seal and can increase the risk of further injury or aspiration, making NIV unsafe in many cases. Nasal or pharyngeal abnormalities, however, do not automatically rule out NIV. With the right interface and setup—such as an alternative mask that accommodates the anatomy—NIV can still be used safely and effectively.
Question 5
Tachycardia is defined as a heart rate exceeding which threshold?
Correct Answer:
>100 bpm
Explanation:
The key idea is how tachycardia is defined by resting heart-rate thresholds. In adults, a normal resting heart rate ranges from about 60 to 100 beats per minute. Tachycardia is defined as the heart rate exceeding 100 beats per minute. That’s why the option describing a heart rate greater than 100 bpm is the correct one. The other values correspond to bradycardia (<60 bpm) or a normal range (60–100 bpm) and do not describe tachycardia. Keep in mind tachycardia can occur with exercise or fever, but clinically it’s defined by resting rate above 100 bpm.
Question 1
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About this Exam

Prepare with the ACCS Respiratory Practice Exam practice quiz. This question bank includes 10 questions covering ventilation, noninvasive, definitive, accs, and respiratory. Use it to review important concepts, identify knowledge gaps, and build confidence for the related exam, course, or assessment.

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ACCS Respiratory Practice Exam

This practice set contains 10 questions from the matching question bank and focuses on ventilation, noninvasive, definitive, accs, and respiratory. Work through each question carefully, review the provided solutions, and revisit topics that need more study before your next attempt.

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