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ABS General Surgery Practice Questions - ABS General Surgery Qualifying Examination Exam

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A 48-year-old man with a prior midline laparotomy presents with 24 hours of crampy abdominal pain, bilious emesis, and obstipation. Abdomen is distended and tender without peritonitis. CT shows dilated small bowel loops to a transition point in the mid-abdomen with decompressed distal bowel, no pneumatosis or free air, and no closed loop. Lactate is normal. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Correct Answer:
NPO, NG decompression, IV fluids, and serial exams

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