APMLE Part III Practice Questions - American Podiatric Medical Licensing Examination Part III (Licensure) Exam

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A 25-year-old soccer player has chronic lateral ankle pain after multiple sprains. Physical exam shows positive talar tilt and anterior drawer; subtalar instability also suspected. MRI shows ATFL, CFL tears, and posterior facet effusion. Best surgical approach is:
Correct Answer:
Modified Brostrom-Gould lateral ligament reconstruction with anatomic ATFL and CFL repair plus inferior extensor retinaculum augmentation; consider subtalar arthroscopy

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