Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 Practice Questions - Arab Board Internal Medicine Part 1 Written Examination (ABHS) Exam

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A 48-year-old man presents with sudden severe tearing chest pain radiating to the back. BP is 190/110 mmHg in the right arm and 150/90 mmHg in the left arm. CT angiography shows an intimal flap in the ascending aorta. What is the most appropriate immediate management?

Intravenous labetalol and urgent surgical referral Intravenous thrombolysis Oral aspirin and observation Immediate primary PCI

Correct Answer:

Intravenous labetalol and urgent surgical referral

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