ABIM Hematology Practice Questions - ABIM Hematology Subspecialty Certification Exam

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A 68-year-old with rheumatoid arthritis has Hgb 10.5 g/dL, MCV 84 fL, ferritin 220 ng/mL, TSAT 12%, TIBC low. Which mechanism best explains this anemia?

Hepcidin-mediated functional iron sequestration Intrinsic factor antibodies blocking B12 absorption Ineffective erythropoiesis with ring sideroblasts Autoimmune destruction of RBCs by warm IgG

Correct Answer:

Hepcidin-mediated functional iron sequestration

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