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SMLE Practice Questions - Saudi Medical Licensing Examination (SMLE) (CBT Via Prometric) Exam

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A 68-year-old man is found to have an irregularly irregular pulse, and ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. He has hypertension and diabetes and a prior transient ischemic attack. His CHA2DS2-VASc score is 5. What is the most appropriate long-term management to reduce stroke risk?
Correct Answer:
Oral anticoagulation

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