ABS CGSO Practice Questions - ABS Complex General Surgical Oncology Certifying Examination Exam

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A 62-year-old woman undergoes lumpectomy with sentinel lymph node biopsy (SLNB) for a 2.1 cm cT1N0 estrogen receptor–positive, HER2-negative invasive ductal carcinoma. Two of three sentinel nodes contain macrometastases. She is planned for whole-breast radiation and endocrine therapy. What is the most appropriate axillary management?

Completion axillary lymph node dissection (ALND) Axillary radiation instead of ALND (AMAROS arm) No further axillary surgery — observation per Z0011/SENOMAC Internal mammary node dissection

Correct Answer:

No further axillary surgery — observation per Z0011/SENOMAC

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