ABFM Sports Medicine Practice Questions - American Board Of Family Medicine Sports Medicine Certificate Of Added Qualifications Exam

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A 58-year-old recreational tennis player has chronic right shoulder pain for 6 months. MRI shows a partial-thickness articular-sided supraspinatus tear (~30%). Physical exam reveals full passive ROM, pain with Neer/Hawkins, Jobe's weakness, but no drop-arm sign. What is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

Immediate arthroscopic rotator cuff repair Structured physical therapy focused on scapular stabilization and posterior cuff strengthening ± subacromial corticosteroid injection 6-week immobilization in abduction pillow Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty

Correct Answer:

Structured physical therapy focused on scapular stabilization and posterior cuff strengthening ± subacromial corticosteroid injection

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