AOBFP Family Medicine Practice Questions - AOBFP Family Medicine Certifying Examination Exam

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A 58-year-old man presents for an annual visit. BP averages 148/92 mmHg on two prior visits and is 150/94 today, confirmed by a repeat reading after 5 minutes. He has no diabetes, no CKD, and no known cardiovascular disease. 10-year ASCVD risk is 12%. According to current guidelines, what is the most appropriate next step?

Initiate lifestyle modification only and reassess in 6 months Initiate lifestyle modification plus a thiazide, ACE inhibitor, or calcium channel blocker Initiate a beta blocker as first-line therapy Order ambulatory BP monitoring before any treatment decision

Correct Answer:

Initiate lifestyle modification plus a thiazide, ACE inhibitor, or calcium channel blocker

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