MAFP IcFRACGP Part 1 Practice Questions - Conjoint MAFP IcFRACGP Examination Part 1 (Applied Knowledge Test & Key Feature Problems) Exam

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A 55-year-old Chinese woman with a 10-year history of Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus presents to the primary care clinic for her quarterly review. Her current medications are Metformin 1g BD and Gliclazide 80mg BD. Her HbA1c is 8.2%. She has no history of cardiovascular disease, but her eGFR is 42 mL/min/1.73m2. According to the Malaysian CPG 2020, which of the following is the most appropriate modification to her therapy?
Correct Answer:
Add a Sodium-Glucose Co-transporter 2 (SGLT2) inhibitor (e.g., Dapagliflozin).

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