APMLE Part III Practice Questions - American Podiatric Medical Licensing Examination Part III (Licensure) Exam

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A 45-year-old with end-stage ankle arthritis (post-traumatic) has tried bracing, NSAIDs, and injections without relief. Imaging shows global ankle joint destruction, preserved subtalar joint, neutral hindfoot alignment, no avascular necrosis. The best surgical option is:

Subtalar arthrodesis Total ankle arthroplasty or ankle arthrodesis based on patient activity demands, age, and surgeon experience Lateral ankle ligament reconstruction Triple arthrodesis

Correct Answer:

Total ankle arthroplasty or ankle arthrodesis based on patient activity demands, age, and surgeon experience

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