ABIM Endocrinology Practice Questions - ABIM Endocrinology, Diabetes, And Metabolism Certification Exam

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A 28-year-old woman presents with galactorrhea, amenorrhea, and headaches. Prolactin is 220 ng/mL. MRI shows a 1.5 cm pituitary adenoma. Which is the first-line therapy?

Transsphenoidal surgery Cabergoline Radiation therapy Bromocriptine

Correct Answer:

Cabergoline

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