Orthopedic Board Practice Questions - Saudi Board Orthopedic Surgery Final Written Exam

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A 38-year-old male sustains a posterior hip dislocation with an associated acetabular fracture. Post-reduction CT reveals a large fracture fragment of the posterior wall of the acetabulum involving 45% of the articular surface. What is the definitive treatment indication?

Nonoperative management with skeletal traction Closed reduction and percutaneous screw fixation Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with plate and screws Total hip arthroplasty (THA)

Correct Answer:

Open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) with plate and screws

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