Arab Board Orthopedic Surgery Clinical Practice Questions - Arab Board Of Health Specializations Orthopedic Surgery Final Clinical And Oral Examination Exam

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A 32-year-old male presents after a motorcycle collision with an open Gustilo-Anderson Type IIIB midshaft tibial fracture. The wound measures 12 cm with extensive periosteal stripping and heavy contamination. What is the most appropriate initial management sequence regarding systemic antibiotics and soft tissue coverage?

First-generation cephalosporin alone; delayed soft tissue coverage beyond 3 weeks First-generation cephalosporin plus aminoglycoside immediately; definitive soft tissue coverage within 7 days Oral fluoroquinolone monotherapy; primary wound closure under tension in the emergency department Topical antibiotic irrigation only; delayed primary closure without vascularized soft tissue transfer

Correct Answer:

First-generation cephalosporin plus aminoglycoside immediately; definitive soft tissue coverage within 7 days

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