Medical Council Practice Test & Exam Prep | Singapore

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A 30-year-old woman presents with a 2-day history of right-sided pleuritic chest pain and breathlessness. She is on combined oral contraceptive pills. Her D-dimer is elevated and CT pulmonary angiography reveals a filling defect in the right lower lobe pulmonary artery. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Start therapeutic anticoagulation with low-molecular-weight heparin Prescribe antibiotics for pneumonia Arrange outpatient spirometry in 2 weeks Perform surgical embolectomy immediately

Correct Answer:

Start therapeutic anticoagulation with low-molecular-weight heparin

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