Arab Board IM Final Written Practice Questions - Arab Board Internal Medicine Final Written Examination Exam

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A 72-year-old woman is diagnosed with newly discovered non-valvular paroxysmal atrial fibrillation. Her medical history includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and a transient ischemic attack (TIA) two years ago. Her serum creatinine is 0.9 mg/dL (eGFR 72 mL/min/1.73 m2). Which of the following is the most appropriate initial therapy for thromboembolic stroke prevention?

Apixaban Aspirin monotherapy 100 mg daily Dual antiplatelet therapy with aspirin and clopidogrel Subcutaneous low-molecular-weight heparin bridge to warfarin target INR 1.5-2.0

Correct Answer:

Apixaban

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