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AOBNP Neurology & Psychiatry Practice Questions - AOBNP Neurology And Psychiatry Primary Certifying Examination Exam

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A 28-year-old woman presents with 3 weeks of depressed mood, anhedonia, decreased sleep, low energy, poor concentration, weight loss, and passive suicidal ideation without plan. She has no manic history. Which is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment?
Correct Answer:
Sertraline

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