ABPN Neuromuscular Medicine Practice Questions - ABPN Neuromuscular Medicine Subspecialty Certification Examination Exam

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A 45-year-old man has 3 years of slowly progressive asymmetric distal arm weakness with wrist drop, no sensory loss, and preserved reflexes. NCS shows motor conduction block at non-entrapment sites; sensory studies are normal. Anti-GM1 IgM is positive. Which therapy is first-line?

High-dose oral corticosteroids Plasma exchange Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) Cyclophosphamide

Correct Answer:

Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)

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