ABPN Neurology Practice Questions - ABPN Neurology Primary Certification Examination Exam

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A 74-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation presents 8 hours after last known well with a left M1 MCA occlusion on CTA. CT perfusion shows a small core with large salvageable penumbra (mismatch ratio >1.8). ASPECTS is 7. What is the best intervention?

Medical management with aspirin only IV alteplase alone — she is beyond the 4.5-hour window Endovascular thrombectomy based on DAWN/DEFUSE 3 criteria Hemicraniectomy

Correct Answer:

Endovascular thrombectomy based on DAWN/DEFUSE 3 criteria

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