ABIM Infectious Disease Practice Questions - American Board Of Internal Medicine Infectious Disease Subspecialty Certification Exam

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A 42-year-old previously healthy woman presents as an outpatient with cough, fever, and a right lower lobe infiltrate on chest x-ray. She has no comorbidities, no recent antibiotic exposure, and no risk factors for drug-resistant pathogens. Per the ATS/IDSA 2019 community-acquired pneumonia guideline, which of the following is the preferred outpatient regimen?

Amoxicillin alone Amoxicillin plus azithromycin, or doxycycline monotherapy Levofloxacin plus vancomycin Ceftriaxone plus azithromycin IV

Correct Answer:

Amoxicillin plus azithromycin, or doxycycline monotherapy

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