RCPSC Internal Medicine Practice Questions - Royal College Certification Examination In Internal Medicine Exam

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A 74-year-old woman with newly diagnosed non-valvular atrial fibrillation has hypertension, diabetes and prior TIA. Her CHADS2-VASc components yield a high stroke risk. Renal function is normal. Which is the most appropriate stroke-prevention therapy?

Aspirin 81 mg daily A direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban Clopidogrel plus aspirin No antithrombotic therapy

Correct Answer:

A direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban

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