ObGyn Board Practice Questions - Saudi Board Obstetrics And Gynecology Final Written Exam

Access More Questions

A 25-year-old G1P0 at 39 weeks of gestation presents in active labor. On initial assessment, her cervix is 4 cm dilated, 80% effaced, and the fetal station is -1. Contractions are occurring every 3 minutes. Four hours later, her cervical exam is unchanged at 4 cm, but contractions have spaced out to every 5-6 minutes. She is comfortable with epidural analgesia. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Perform an immediate cesarean section for arrest of dilation Perform an artificial rupture of membranes (amniotomy) and initiate oxytocin augmentation Administer IV bolus of fluids and reassess in another 4 hours Discharge the patient home and advise her to return when contractions are stronger

Correct Answer:

Perform an artificial rupture of membranes (amniotomy) and initiate oxytocin augmentation

Access more questions from this quiz

Continue to ObGyn Board Practice Questions - Saudi Board Obstetrics and Gynecology Final Written Exam for more practice questions and the full quiz experience.

Access More Questions