MSRA Practice Questions - Multi-Specialty Recruitment Assessment (MSRA) Exam

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A 72-year-old woman has an irregularly irregular pulse and ECG confirms atrial fibrillation. She has hypertension and diabetes (CHA2DS2-VASc score 4) and no bleeding risk factors. What is the single most appropriate long-term stroke-prevention treatment?
Correct Answer:
A direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)

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