MRCP(UK) Part 2 Written Practice Questions - MRCP(UK) Part 2 (Written) Exam

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A 60-year-old woman with non-valvular atrial fibrillation has a CHA2DS2-VASc score of 4 and a HAS-BLED score of 2. She has normal renal function. Which is the most appropriate antithrombotic strategy?

Aspirin 75 mg daily Clopidogrel plus aspirin No antithrombotic therapy A direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban

Correct Answer:

A direct oral anticoagulant such as apixaban

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