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MRCP(UK) Part 2 Written Practice Questions - MRCP(UK) Part 2 (Written) Exam

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A 68-year-old man presents with central crushing chest pain for 40 minutes. His ECG shows 2 mm ST elevation in leads II, III and aVF with reciprocal depression in I and aVL. His blood pressure is 88/54 mmHg and his JVP is raised. What is the single most appropriate immediate management priority?
Correct Answer:
Primary percutaneous coronary intervention

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