MBBS (Bachelor Of Medicine And Bachelor Of Surgery) Professional Examination

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A 73-year-old man who has a history of atrial fibrillation and hypertension appears with mid-abdominal pain that started out of nowhere. A little while afterwards, I had a black, liquid bowel movement. There are no signs of peritonitis on an abdominal exam. The patient does, however, have leukocytosis. He is brought into the surgery room to be examined. The ascending colon, cecum, and distal small bowel appear dark and purple. What will management do next?

Warm the bowel and re-evaluate in 24 hours Revascularization followed by bowel resection Systemic heparinization Bowel resection and anastomosis

Correct Answer:

Revascularization followed by bowel resection

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