General Surgery Board Practice Questions - Saudi Board General Surgery Final Written Exam

Access More Questions

A 55-year-old postoperative patient who has been receiving prophylactic unfractionated heparin develops a sudden drop in platelet count from 250,000 to 90,000/microL on postoperative day 7, accompanied by a new cold, painful left leg. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

Discontinue heparin and start a low-molecular-weight heparin (LMWH) infusion Discontinue heparin and initiate a direct thrombin inhibitor (e.g., argatroban) Transfuse platelets immediately and repeat the platelet count in 2 hours Discontinue heparin and start oral warfarin immediately

Correct Answer:

Discontinue heparin and initiate a direct thrombin inhibitor (e.g., argatroban)

Access more questions from this quiz

Continue to General Surgery Board Practice Questions - Saudi Board General Surgery Final Written Exam for more practice questions and the full quiz experience.

Access More Questions