CAMC Part 1 Exam Practice Questions - CAMC Regional Medical Registration Examination Part 1 (MCQ) Exam

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A 58-year-old man presents with crushing central chest pain radiating to the left arm for 40 minutes, with diaphoresis. ECG shows 2 mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Which is the single most appropriate immediate reperfusion strategy if primary PCI cannot be delivered within 120 minutes?

Intravenous fibrinolysis with a fibrin-specific agent Oral beta-blockade and observation Elective coronary angiography in 48 hours Intravenous unfractionated heparin alone

Correct Answer:

Intravenous fibrinolysis with a fibrin-specific agent

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