APMLE Part II Practice Questions - American Podiatric Medical Licensing Examination Part II (Clinical, Written) Exam

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A 52-year-old with symptomatic hallux abductovalgus has an intermetatarsal angle (IMA) of 18 degrees, hallux valgus angle (HVA) of 35 degrees, and an incongruent first MPJ with no degenerative change. Which procedure best addresses the deformity?

Distal first metatarsal osteotomy (Austin/Chevron) Proximal first metatarsal osteotomy or Lapidus arthrodesis with distal soft-tissue release Keller arthroplasty (resection of base of proximal phalanx) First MPJ arthrodesis

Correct Answer:

Proximal first metatarsal osteotomy or Lapidus arthrodesis with distal soft-tissue release

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